Tuesday, August 16, 2011

If someone asks why America has 88% of all murders in the industrial world, why do people say it's the blacks?

If it is indeed "the blacks" committing 100% of the murders, what effect does that information have on the statistic stated? What if the relevance of that statement to the question? Are "the blacks" not actually American citizens and therefore it absolves the US of any murders?

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